QTQuant Terminal
B1-07B1·intro·~17 min

The time value of money

time-valuepresent-valuecompoundingdiscountingrisk-free-rate

▸ Pretest — guess, even if you don't know

You invest $10,000 at 8% per year for 30 years, reinvesting everything. Roughly how much do you end with?

Interest is the price of time

If I offer you 100todayor100 today or 100 in a year, you take it today — even ignoring inflation and the risk I might not pay. Money in hand can be put to work: lent out, invested in T-bills, used now instead of later. The interest rate is the market price of that flexibility. It's what someone must pay you to give up your money for a period of time.

This one idea underlies almost everything in finance: bond pricing, options pricing, why the Sharpe ratio subtracts a risk-free rate, why a "guaranteed 1Min40years"pensionpromiseisworthfarlessthan1M in 40 years" pension promise is worth far less than 1M today.

Future value: compounding forward

Invest PVPV today at rate rr per year, reinvesting all interest. After nn years:

FV=PV(1+r)nFV = PV \, (1+r)^n

The exponent is the whole story. Ten thousand dollars at 8%:

YearsValueLinear guess
1$10,800$10,800
9$19,990$17,200
18$39,960$24,400
30$100,627$34,000

By year 30 the compound value is roughly 3× what linear intuition suggests. This is why fees, small edges, and small return differences matter so much over long horizons — they compound too.

Present value: discounting backward

Run the same machine in reverse. A cash flow CC arriving in nn years is worth today:

PV=C(1+r)nPV = \frac{C}{(1+r)^n}

This is called discounting, and rr here is the discount rate. A dollar tomorrow is worth less than a dollar today because you could have invested today's dollar and had more than a dollar tomorrow. Concretely: at r=8%r = 8\%, 100arrivingin9yearsisworthabout100 arriving in 9 years is worth about **50 today** — because 50investedat850 invested at 8% grows to ~100 in 9 years (1.0891.9991.08^9 \approx 1.999).

Every asset price is, at some level, a discounted stream of expected future cash flows. When interest rates rise, discount rates rise, and the present value of far-future cash flows falls — which is why long-duration assets (long bonds, high-growth tech stocks whose profits are decades away) get hit hardest when rates go up.

Compounding frequency, briefly

(1+r)n(1+r)^n assumes interest compounds once a year. Compound more often and you earn slightly more: 8% compounded monthly gives (1+0.08/12)1218.30%(1 + 0.08/12)^{12} - 1 \approx 8.30\% effective. Push the frequency to the limit and you get continuous compounding:

FV=PVertFV = PV \, e^{rt}

At 8%, e0.081.0833e^{0.08} \approx 1.0833 vs. 1.08 — a small difference, but the continuous form is mathematically cleaner, which is why derivatives pricing (Hull's world) and log returns (which add across time exactly the way erte^{rt} exponents add) live in continuous-compounding land. For now just recognize erte^{rt} when you see it.

The risk-free rate: the baseline everything is measured against

The risk-free rate rfr_f is what you earn for giving up money over time while taking (essentially) zero default risk — in practice, the yield on short-term US Treasury bills. It is pure time value: no risk premium at all.

This is the baseline hurdle for every investment. Earning 5% when T-bills pay 5% means your risk earned you nothing. That's why:

When you see rfr_f subtracted anywhere in this curriculum, it's this lesson operating: strip out the price of time first, then judge what the risk bought you.

The rule of 72

Quick mental math: money doubles in approximately 72/r72 / r years, with rr in percent. At 8%: 72/8=972/8 = 9 years (exact answer: ln2/ln1.089.01\ln 2 / \ln 1.08 \approx 9.01 — the rule is remarkably accurate for rates between ~4% and ~12%).

The power move is chaining doublings. A 30-year horizon at 8% is 30/93.330/9 \approx 3.3 doublings: 23.310×2^{3.3} \approx 10\times. That single estimate — "8% for 30 years is about 10×" — reframes retirement math, fee drag, and why starting to invest 9 years earlier roughly doubles the final outcome for the same contributions.

Try it

▮ EXERCISE · b1-07-ex1

Implement present_value(cashflow, r, years): the value today of a single cash flow arriving in the future, discounted at annual rate r. Formula: cashflow / (1 + r) ** years.

⧉ Review card
What is the future value formula for annual compounding?
FV = PV * (1 + r)^n. Multiplicative, not additive: each year's interest earns interest. At 8% for 30 years the factor is about 10x, not the 3.4x linear thinking suggests.
⧉ Review card
Why is a dollar tomorrow worth less than a dollar today?
Because today's dollar can be invested at the risk-free rate and become more than a dollar tomorrow. PV = C / (1+r)^n — discounting is compounding run in reverse.
⧉ Review card
What is the rule of 72?
Money doubles in roughly 72 / r years (r in percent). At 8%: about 9 years, so a 30-year horizon is ~3.3 doublings, about 10x.
⧉ Review card
What is the risk-free rate and why does the Sharpe ratio subtract it?
The return on (essentially) default-free short-term Treasuries — pure time value with no risk premium. Sharpe subtracts it because only return above that riskless baseline is compensation for the risk you took.
⧉ Review card
Why do long-duration assets fall hardest when interest rates rise?
Their cash flows arrive far in the future, so the discount factor (1+r)^n has a large n. A higher r shrinks distant cash flows much more than near ones.

Explain it in your own words

Your generative activity: explain to a friend with no finance background why 100arrivingin9yearsisworthonlyabout100 arriving in 9 years is worth only about 50 today when rates are 8% — without using the word "formula." If you can make the reinvestment argument in plain speech, you own this concept.

◈ Calibration check

Could you compute a present value by hand and explain why discounting exists?

1 = guessing · 5 = could teach it

⏻ End of lesson

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Sources & further reading